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UPSC Prelims Question Paper Discussion & Answer Key 2024

Mains Answer Writing 2023

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Q.1. Consider the following statements:
  1. Jhelum River passed through Wular Lake.
  2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
  3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake

How many of the statements given above are correct

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: The main source of water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum. This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’.      

Statement 2 is inCorrect: The Kolleru lake is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna

Statement 3 is inCorrect: The Kanwar lake draws water from the confluence of the budhi Gandak, the Bia and the Kareh river, is situated near Manjhaul, 22 km northwest of Begusarai, Bihar.

Aspire IAS Mapping module full and crash course. Clearly explained in class

Q.2. Consider the following pairs : Port Well known as
  1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company
  2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India
  3. Visakahpatnam : Largest container ports in India

How many of the above pairs are correct matched?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

Statement 3 is inCorrect: Largest container port is JNPT.

 Aspire IAS Mapping module full and crash course. Clearly explained in class

Q.3. Consider the following trees :
  1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
  2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
  3. Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

 Jackfruit is Tropical Evergreen.

 

Aspire IAS Mapping module full and crash course. Clearly explained in class

Q.4. Consider the following statements :
  1. India has more arable area than China.
  2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
  3. The average productivity per hectare in India agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

 Average productivity is greater in China than India.

Aspire IAS Mapping module full and crash course. Clearly explained in class

 

Q.5. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present day extensive marshland?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

Aspire IAS Mapping module full and crash course. Clearly explained in class

 

Repeated sea level fall from cretaceous period. Even it is an emergent coast.

 

Q.6. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

11th Class old NCERT Principle of Geography Part 2. Aspire IAS Mapping module

 

 

Q.7. About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

Newspaper and  Aspire IAS Mapping module full and crash course. Clearly explained in class

 

 

Q.8. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation: Cameroon. Uganda is not the answer because it is situated West of Rift valley. Therefore, Cameroon is a part of Basin.
Q.9. Consider the following statements :
  1. Amarkantak Hillas are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
  2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
  3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

Amarkantak is in Chattisgarh and Sahyadri is in Gujarat. BRT is in Karnataka and Satpura is shared between Maharashtra and MP. Southern most part of Western Ghats is Cardamom Hills.

Aspire IAS Mapping module full and crash course. Clearly explained in class

 

 

Q.10. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:
  1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
  2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiand Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
  3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

East West Corridor – Silchar to Porbandar. BCIM from Kolkata to Kunming. Trilateral Highway from Moreh to Mae Sot in Thailand. Newspaper Module.

Q.11. Consider the following statements:
  1. Statement – I : India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
  2. Statement – II : Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

Electricity is produced from 1 – 3%. Source - IYB and Science module.

Q.12. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I :Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
  2. Statement-II : Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

Marsupials are the species of grasslands in Australia. AspireIAS Environment module.

Q.13. ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation:

Sanjeevani Batch. IUCN Website.

Q.14. Consider the following fauna :
  1. Lion-tailed Macaque
  2. Malabar Civet
  3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

Deer are generally active in the daytime. Source – AspireIAS Environment module.

Q.15. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation: . BBC Documentary.
Q.16. Consider the following statements:
  1. Some mushrooms have medical properties.
  2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
  3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
  4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

Exception is always there. But some is always correct. Tricks from the PT Tricks batch.

Q.17. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:
  1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
  2. The store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
  3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: Indian Squirrel builds nests on the trees.
Q.18. Consider the following statements :
  1. Some microorganism can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
  2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
  3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

 Tricks from the PT Tricks batch.

Q.19. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: Common Sense. Only ape has the ability of cognition like Man.
Q.20. Consider the following :
  1. Aerosols
  2. Foam agents
  3. Fire retardants
  4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydro fluorocarbons used?

Correct Answer : C

Q.21. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
  2. Statement-II : InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation: Both dividend and Interest are exempted from tax.
Q.22. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
  2. Statement-II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation:

AspireIAS Newspaper and Economics class.

Q.23. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
  2. Statement-II : Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Environment module.

Q.24. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation:

Sanjeevani Economics Batch.

Q.25. Consider the following markets :
  1. Government Bond Market
  2. Call Money Market
  3. Treasury Bill Market
  4. Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

Sanjeevani Economics Batch.

Q.26. Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: Most logical. New concept in Indian Express.
Q.27. Consider the following Statements :
  1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
  2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
  3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
  4. How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

Sanjeevani Economics Batch and IYB Batch. Maximum Oilseeds except Mustard & Sesamum are Kharif crops.

Q.28. Consider the investments in the following assets:
  1. Brand recognition
  2. Inventory
  3. Intellectual property
  4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

Sanjeevani Economics Explanation Tangible and Intangible Assets.

Q.29. Consider the following :
  1. Forest and ecology
  2. Governance reforms
  3. Stable government
  4. Tax and fiscal efforts
  5. Demographic performance

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

Correct Answer : B

Q.30. Consider the following infrastructure sectors :
  1. Affordable housing
  2. Mass rapid transport
  3. Health care
  4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation: Initiatives focus on investment in all the 4 sectors.
Q.31. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Polity Batch. Maneka Gandhi case.

Q.32. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by state Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
  2. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Q.33. Which one of the following statements best reflect the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Polity Batch.

Q.34. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation:

AspireIAS Polity Batch.

Q.35.    Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
  1. The National Commission for Backward Classes.
  2. The National Human Rights Commission
  3. The National Law Commission
  4.   The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation:

AspireIAS Polity Batch.

Q.36. Consider the following statements:
  1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
  2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
  3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

AspireIAS Polity Batch.

Q.37. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the India Parliament, consider the following statements:
  1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
  2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Lok Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
  3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation: 1st Statement: It can amend it but not reject it. 3rd Statement: There will never be a joint sitting.
Q.38. Consider the following statements :
  1. Once the Central Government notifies an area as ‘Community Reserve’
  2.   The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
  3. Hunting is not allowed in such area
  4. People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce

How many of the above statement are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

AspireIAS Newspaper Batch – Community Reserves issue of Northeast.

Q.39. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements :
  1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled area takes place through an Order of the President.
  2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
  3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Q.40. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance 1.0of efficiency of administration.
  2. Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation: . Efficiency of administration is not defined.
Q.41. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

Correct Answer : A

Q.42. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statement :
  1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
  2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
  3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statement given above are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Q.43. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: NCERT. https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/korkai-exploration-needs-separate-set-of-expertise-thennarasu/article65533155.ece AspireIAS Newspaper Module.
Q.44. Which one of the following explains the practice of ‘Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in sangam poems?

Correct Answer : D

Q.45. Consider the following dynasties :
  1. Hoysala
  2. Gahadavala
  3. Kakatiya
  4. Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

Correct Answer : D

Q.46. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs :Literary word Author
  1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana
  2. Hammira Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri
  3. Milinda-panya : Nagarjuna
  4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS History Batch.

Q.47. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.” The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

Correct Answer : B

Q.48. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometers long from the river to the capital city?

Correct Answer : A

Q.49. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu of Portuguese?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS History Batch.

Q.50. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

AspireIAS History Batch.

Q.51. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :
  1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
  2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
  3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
  4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

AspireIAS IYB Sanjeevani Batch.

Q.52. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:
  1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
  2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child birth.
  3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
  4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

AspireIAS Sanjeevani IYB Notes.

Q.53. Consider the following statements :
  1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components use in automobiles and aircrafts.
  2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation: Carbon fibres can be recycled.
Q.54. Consider the following actions :
  1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously
  2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the group which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
  3. Detection of the tilt of the smart phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode

In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?

Correct Answer : C

Q.55. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements :
  1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
  2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
  3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: Phosphorus is the slowest biogeographic cycle coming from sedimentary rocks. Biofilters are for waste treatments.
Q.56. Consider the following pairs : Objects in space Description
  1. Cepheilds : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
  2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically
  3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are interchanged. AspireIAS S&T Sanjeevani batch.

Q.57. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

AspireIAS S&T Sanjeevani batch.

Q.58. Consider the following statements :
  1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their fights, which cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
  2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while Brahmos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

AspireIAS S&T Sanjeevani batch.

Q.59. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution :
  1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
  2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
  3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Environment Module.

Q.60. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements :
  1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
  2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
  3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Newspaper and Environment Sanjeevani Module.

Q.61. Consider the following countries:
  1. Bulgaria Latvia
  2. Czech Republic
  3. Hungary
  4. Lithuania
  5. Romania 6. Latvia

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation:

. AspireIAS Mapping Module. Clearly explained in Class.

Q.62. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Geography Module and PT Tricks batch.

Q.63. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
  2. Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

Soil in tropical rainforests are poor in nutrients. AspireIAS Geography Module.

Q.64. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
  2. Statement-II : The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

. In general the effect of the latitude on temperature is well pronounced on the map, as the isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude.  The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere. NCERT 11th. AspireIAS Geography Module.

Q.65. Consider the following statements :
  1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
  2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Geography Module.

Q.66. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :
  1. None of them uses seawater.
  2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
  3. None of them is privately owned.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

AspireIAS Geography Module.

Q.67. ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation: . AspireIAS S&T Sanjeevani Module.
Q.68. Consider the following activities :
  1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
  2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
  3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in t he form of carbonated waters

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

Correct Answer : C

Q.69. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

Correct Answer : A

Q.70. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation:

AspireIAS S&T Sanjeevani Booklet.

Q.71. Consider the following statements with reference to India :
  1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore.
  2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and – Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

AspireIAS Economic Sanjeevani Batch.

Q.72. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
  1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
  2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Economic Sanjeevani Batch.

Q.73. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to

Correct Answer : D

Q.74. Consider the following statements :
  1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
  2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
  3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: SHG started formally in 9th FYP and from IRDP.
Q.75. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
  2. Statement-II : Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : B

Q.76. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
  2. Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Newspaper Batch and Environment Batch. https://www.aspireias.com/daily-news-analysis-current-affairs/Groundwater-Protection

Q.77. Consider the following statements :
  1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
  2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
  3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation: 1st is correct. AspireIAS Polity Module.
Q.78. Which of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent post for its very severe famine?

Correct Answer : D

Q.79. Consider the following statements :
  1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
  2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to key collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Q.80. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
  1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
  2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
  3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
  4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : A

Explanation: A. 4th is correct.
Q.81. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

Correct Answer : A

Q.82. Consider the following pairs : Site Well known for
  1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
  2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine
  3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: Besnagar has Vasudev/ Vaishnavism influence.
Q.83. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : 7th August is declares as the National Handloom Day.
  2. Statement-II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : A

Q.84. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :
  1. Statement-I : One of the standard sized of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
  2. Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

AspireIAS IYB Batch Chapter 1.

Q.85. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :
  1. Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizen.
  2. Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

. Polity Batch.

Q.86. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
  2. Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest gold reserve in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

AspireIAS Mapping module.

Q.87. Consider the following statements:
  1. Statement-I : Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’.
  2. Statement-II : The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation: It was started to counter Chinese dominance.
Q.88. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
  2. Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation: . India aims to raise the share of its exports in global trade to 3% by 2027 and 10% by 2047 from the current 2.1%.
Q.89. Consider the following statements : The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that
  1. Limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
  2. Makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
  3. Enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : A

Q.90. Consider the following statements :
  1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
  2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
  3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation: . It includes all types of International Migration. It is guided by New York declaration of Refugee and Migration, 2016.
Q.91. With reference to Home Guards consider the following statements :
  1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
  2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
  3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. (d) None

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: 3rd statement is BSF. 2 statements are correct.
Q.92. With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Action The Act under which it is covered
  1. Unauthorized wearing : The Official Secrets of police or military Act, 1923 uniforms
  2. Knowingly misleading : The Indian Evidence or otherwise inter- Act, 1872 fering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties
  3. Celebratory gunfire : The Arms (Amend- Which can endanger ment) Act, 2019 the personal safety of others

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: 2nd statement is wrong. It is only for misleading evidences.
Q.93. Consider the following pairs : Regions often Reason for being mentioned in news in news
  1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between America and Azerbaijan
  2. Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique
  3. Kherson and : Dispute between Zaporizhzhia Israel and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

Newspaper Batch of AspireIAS.

Q.94. Consider the following statements :
  1. Statement-I : Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
  2. Statement-II : The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation: C 2nd is a wrong statement. Arab Peace Initiative is to solve the conflict of Israel and Palestine mediated by Saudi Arabia.
Q.95. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards :
  1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
  2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
  3. Dronacharya Award : To honor eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
  4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation:

Sanjeevani Economics and IYB Batch. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar is for NGOs and Universities for promoting sports. Arjuna Award is for performance of 4 years + leadership. Dhyanchand Award is for lifetime award.

Q.96. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 :
  1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
  2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’.
  3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
  4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamiltion-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer : B

Explanation: 3rd and 4th statement is wrong. Newspaper Batch June to October Batch 2022.
Q.97. Consider the following pairs : Area of conflict Country where mentioned in news it is located
  1. Donbas : Syria
  2. Kachin : Ethiopia
  3. Tigray : North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:

AspireIAS Newspaper class. Donbas belongs to Russia. Kachin belongs to Myanmar. Tigray – Ethiopia.

Q.98. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reason common to all of them?

Correct Answer : D

Explanation: Newspaper Batch of Previous sessions.
Q.99. Consider the following heavy industries :
  1. Fertilizer plants
  2. Oil refineries
  3. Steel plants

Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

Aspire IAS Newspaper Analysis Batch and Environment Batch.

Q.100. Consider the following statements about G-20 :
  1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
  2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Explanation:

Ans. C. Aspire IAS Newspaper Analysis Batch.


Mains Answer Writing 2023

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Ethics Full Classes (Includes 100+ case studies)

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Integrated RAW (GS Crash Course + WSDP)

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Q.1. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 1 To tackle the problem of pollution in cities, policy makers think that drastic actions like temporary use of odd-even number scheme for vehicles, closing schools, factories, construction activities, and banning the use of certain type of vehicles are a way forward. Even then the air is not clean. Vehicles more than 15 years old comprise one percent of the total ; and taking them off the roads will not make any difference. Banning certain fuels and car types arbitrarily is not proper. Diesel engine produces more PM 2.5 and less CO2 than petrol or CNG engines. On the other hand, both diesel and CNG engines produce more NOx than petrol engines. No one has measured the amount of NOx that CNG engines are emitting. Arbitrary bans on vehicles that have passed mandated fitness tests and periodic pollution tests are unfair. What is needed is the scientific and reliable information about the source of pollutants on a continuing basis and the technologies that will work to reduce pollution from them.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational implication conveyed by the passage?

Correct Answer : B

Q.2. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 2 Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance enhances access to external financing by enhances access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth and employment. Investor look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met.

Which of the following statements best reflects the logical inference from the passage given above?

Correct Answer : B

Q.3. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 3 Elephants are landscape architects, creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain plant species and allowing space for the regeneration of others, which in turn provide sustenance to other herbivorous animals. Elephants eat plants, fruits and seeds, propagating the seeds when they defecate in other places as they travel. Elephant dung provides nourishment to plants and animals and acts as a breeding ground for insects. In times of drought, they access water by digging holes which benefits other wildlife.

Which one of the following statements best reflects he most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?

Correct Answer : B

Q.4. If 7 + 9 + 10 = 8, 9 + 11 + 30 = 5j, 11 + 17 + 21 = 13, what is the value of 23 + 4 + 15?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.5. Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.6. If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (P + q) (r + s) ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : B

Q.7. A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.8. Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the resulting number?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.9. What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : B

Q.10. ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can be drawn using any three points as vertices out of these six points?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.11. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 1 We often hear about conflicts among different States in India over river waters of the 20 major river systems, 14 are already water-stressed; 75% of the population lives in water stressed regions, a third of whom live in water-scarce areas. Climate change, the demands of rising population and the need for agriculture to keep pace, and increased rate of urbanization and industrialization will exacerbate water stress. According to the Constitution of India, water is a State subject and not that of the Union, except for regulation of inter-State rivers. Key to ensuring balance between competing demands of various stakeholders is a basin-based approach to allocate water amongst constituent regions and States. Allocating fair share of water to them requires assessments based on objective criteria, such as specificities of the river basin, size of dependent population, existing water use and demand, efficiency of use, projected future use, etc. while ensuring the environmental needs of the river and aquifers.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, practical and immediate action required to ensure fair and equitable allocation of water to different stakeholders?

Correct Answer : A

Q.12. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 2 More than half of Indian Women and almost More than half of Indian women and almost a quarter of Indian men of working age suffer from anaemia. According to studies, they are anywhere from 5 15% less productive than they could be, as a result thereof. India also has the largest tuberculosis burden in the world, costing 170 million workdays to the country annually. But what is just as important as lost productivity now is lost potential in the future. It is becoming increasingly clear that on many measures of cognitive ability, malnourished Indian children perform two or three times worse than their adequately nourished peers. For an economy that will be more dependent on highly skilled workers, this poses a significant challenge. And it is one that really should be addressed given India's demographic outlook.

Which one of the following statements best reflects what is implied by the passage?

Correct Answer : D

Q.13. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 3 In India, a majority of farmers are marginal and small, less educated and possess low adaptive capabilities to climate change, perhaps because of credit and other constraints. So, one cannot expect autonomous adaptation to climate change. Even if it was possible, it would not be sufficient to offset losses from climate change. To deal with this, adaptation to climate change is paramount, alongside a fast mitigation response. Another solution is to have a planned or policy-driven adaptation, which would require the government to come up with policy recommendations. Perception is a necessary pre-requisite for adaptation. Whether farmers are adapting agricultural practices to climate change depends on whether they perceive it or not. However, this is not always enough for adaptation. It is important how a farmer perceives the risks associated with climate change.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical wand rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?

Correct Answer : C

Q.14. Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he randomly picks shoes one by one (without replacement) from the box to get a red pair of shoes to wear, what is the maximum number of attempts he has to make?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : D

Q.15. In how many ways can a batsman score exactly 25 runs by scoring single runs, fours and sixes only, irrespective of the sequence of scoring shots?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : B

Q.16. There are four letters and four envelopes and exactly one letter is to be put in exactly one envelope with the correct address. If the letters are randomly inserted into the envelopes, then consider the following statements :
  1. It is possible that exactly one letter goes into an incorrect envelope.
  2. There are only six ways in which only two letters can go into the correct envelopes.

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : B

Q.17. What is the remainder when 85 x 87 x 89 x 91 x 95 x 96 divided by 100 ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.18. What is the unit digit in the expansion of (57242)9x7x5x3x1 ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.19. If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C, D, E and F are distinct non-zero digits such that ABC + DEF = 1111, then what is the value of A + B + C + D + E + F ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : D

Q.20. D is a 3-digit number such that the ratio of the number to the sum of its digits is least. What is the difference between the digit at the hundred's place and the digit at the unit's place of D?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.21. Read the following three passages and answer to these items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 1 In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and the rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and biomethanation offers a major solution for processing this.
  2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies. 2. Resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handles by private sector enterprises.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Q.22. Read the following three passages and answer to these items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 1 In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and the rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and biomethanation offers a major solution for processing this.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

Correct Answer : C

Q.23. Read the following three passages and answer to these items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 2 There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.
  2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers. 2. Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Q.24. Read the following three passages and answer to these items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 2 There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the author of the passage?

Correct Answer : C

Q.25. Read the following three passages and answer to these items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 3 Food consumption pattern have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional crops/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.
  2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve zero-hunger goal, monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable even if they do not address malnutrition. 2. Dependence on a few crops have negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem. 3. Government policies regarding food planning need to incorporate nutritional security. 4. For the present monoculture agriculture practices, farmers receive subsidies in various ways and government offers remunerative prices for grains and therefore they do not tend to consider crop diversity.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

Correct Answer : A

Q.26. A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following statements :
  1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly must contain one full group of at least one colour is 175.
  2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain at least one ball of each colour is 167.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Q.27. If 'ZERO' is written as 'CHUR' then how is 'PLAYER' written?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : D

Q.28. Consider the following statements :
  1. 1. A is older than B. 2. C and D are of the same age. 3. E is the youngest. 4. F is younger than D. 5. F is older than A.

How many statements given above are required to determine the oldest person/persons?

Correct Answer : D

Q.29. Consider the following including the Question and the statements:
  1. There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family. Question : What is the relation of E to B? Statement-1 : A and B are a married couple. Statement-2 : D is the father of C. Statement-3 : E is D's son. Statement-4 : A and C are sisters.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and Statements?

Correct Answer : C

Q.30. Choose the group which is different from the others:

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : D

Q.31. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. You answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 1 The emissions humans put into the atmosphere now will affect the climate in the middle of the century and onwards. Technological change, meanwhile, could make a future transition away from fossil fuels cheap or it might not, leaving the world with a terrible choice between sharply reducing emissions at huge cost or suffering through the effects of unabated warming. Businesses that do not hedge against the threat of uncertain outcomes fail. The world cannot afford such recklessness on climate change.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the crucial message conveyed by the author of the passage?

Correct Answer : C

Q.32. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. You answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 2 Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems, but this idea appear almost impossible to adopt. With environmental problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia. With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death, literally. And yet, barring a few, there seem to be the same collective lethargy towards making their choices.

Which one of the following statements best implies the most rational assumption that can be made from the passage ?

Correct Answer : C

Q.33. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. You answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 3 Many people are not eating the right food. For some, it is simply a decision to stick with food they enjoy but which is not too healthy. This is leading to an increase in non-communicable diseases. This in turn leads to major burden on our health-care systems that have the potential to derail the economic progress which is essential for the poor to improve their lives. For others, it is about limited access to nutritious food or a lack of affordability, leading to monotonous diets that do not provide the daily nutrients for them to develop fully. Part of the reason nutrition is under threat worldwide is that our food systems are not properly responding to nutritional needs. Somewhere along that long road from farm to fork there are serious detours taking place.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

Correct Answer : B

Q.34. Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the following :
  1. P + q + r - s - t is definitely even.
  2. 2p + q + 2r - 2s + t is definitely odd.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Correct Answer : A

Q.35. Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c.
  1. (p+c)/(p-c) can be even.
  2. 2p + c can be odd.
  3. Pc can be odd.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer : D

Q.36. A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different non-zero digits. What is the value of A + B + C ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : D

Q.37. For any choices of values of X, Y and Z, the 6-digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible by :

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : D

Q.38. 125 identical cubes are arranged in the form of a cubical block. How many cubes are surrounded by other cubes from each side ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.39. How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number 11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions and even digits occupy even positions?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.40. A, B, C working independently can do a piece of work in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. A alone works on Monday, B alone works on Tuesday, c alone works on Wednesday; A alone, again works on Thursday and so on. Consider the following statements:
  1. The work will be finished on Thursday.
  2. The work will be finished in 10 days

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Correct Answer : A

Q.41. Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 1 The paradox of choice is illustrated by the story of Buridan's ass. Jean Buridan, the 14th century philosopher, wrote about free will and the inability to choose due to numerous choices and uncertainties. In the story, a donkey stands between two equally appealing stacks of hay. Unable to decide which to eat, it starves to death changes in technology and innovations such as smart phones and tablets only exacerbate our glut of choices. Constant connectivity and overconsumption of real-time data and social media can leave little room for self-reflection and rest, making decisions more difficult. Life is about choices. Many people are overwhelmed with attractive life choices, yet find themselves unhappy and anxious.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical message implied by the above passage?

Correct Answer : D

Q.42. Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 2 Household finance in India is unique. We have a tendency to invest to heavily in physical assets such as gold and property. Step to encourage the financialization of savings are critical. A populace accustomed to traditional processes will not simply jump into financialization. Hurdles to change include onerous bureaucracy, a skepticism of organized financial institutions, a lack of basic information about which of the myriad services and providers is best for each family, and how (and even if ) one can make the transition between them if necessary.
  2. Regarding the financialization of household savings, which of the following statements best reflect the solutions that are implied by the passage ? 1. A flexible environment is needed to develop solutions. 2. Households need customized solutions. 3. Innovations in financial technology are required

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct Answer : A

Q.43. Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 3 Pharmaceutical patents grant protection to the patentee for the duration of the patent term. The patentees enjoy the liberty to determine the prices of medicines, which is time-limited to period of monopoly, but could be unaffordable to the public. Such patent protection offered to patentees is believed to benefit the public over the longer term through innovations and research and development (R & D), although it comes at a cost, in the nature of higher prices for the patented medicine. The patent regime and price protection - through a legally validated high price for the medicine during the currency of the patent - provide the patentee with a legitimate mechanism to get returns on the costs incurred in innovation and research.
  2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Patent protection given to patentees puts a huge burden on public's purchasing power in accessing patented medicines. 2. Dependence on other countries for pharmaceutical products is a huge burden for developing and poor countries. 3. Providing medicines to the public at affordable prices is a key goal during the public health policy design in many countries. 4. Governments need to find an appropriate balance between the rights of patentees and the requirements of the patients.

Which of the above assumptions are valid ?

Correct Answer : B

Q.44. Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 4 India should ensure the growth of the digital economy while keeping personal data of citizens secure and protected . No one will innovate in a surveillance-oriented environment or in a place where an individual's personal information is compromised. the ultimate control of data must reside with the individuals who generate it; they should be enabled to use, restrict or monetize it as they wish. Therefore, data protection laws should enable the right kind of innovation - one that is user-centric and privacy protecting.
  2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Protection of privacy is not just a right, but it has value to the economy. 2. There is a fundamental link between privacy and innovation.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

Correct Answer : C

Q.45. In an examination, the maximum marks for each of the four papers namely P, Q, R and S are 100. Marks scored by the students are in integers. A student can score 99% in n different ways. What is the value of n?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : D

Q.46. A flag has to be designed with 4 horizontal stripes using some or all of the colours red, green and yellow. What is the number of different ways in which this can be done so that no two adjacent stripes have the same colour?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.47. A rectangular floor measures 4 m in length and 2.2 m in breadth. Tiles of size 140 cm by 60 cm have to be laid such that the tiles do not overlap. A tile can be placed in any orientation so long as its edges are parallel to the edges of the floor. What is the maximum number of tiles that can be accommodated on the floor?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.48. There are five persons P, Q, R, S and T each one of whom has to be assigned one task. Neither P nor Q can be assigned Task-1. Task-2 must be assigned to either R or S. In how many ways can the assignment be done?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.49. There is large number of silver coins weighing 2 gm, 5 gm, 10 gm, 25 gm, 50 gm each. Consider the following statements :
  1. 1. To buy 78 gm of coins one must buy at least 7 coins. 2. To weigh 78 gm using these coins one can use less than 7 coins.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer : A

Q.50. Consider the following :
  1. A + B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B. A - B means A is not greater than B. A x B means A is not smaller than B. A ÷ B means A is neither greater nor equal to B. A ± B means A is neither smaller nor greater than B. Statement : P x Q, P - T, T ÷ R, R ± S Conclusion-1 : Q ± T Conclusion-2 : S + Q

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statement and the Conclusions?

Correct Answer : B

Q.51. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 1 Scientists studied the vernal window -transition period from winter to the growing season. They found that warmer winters with less snow resulted in a longer lag time between spring events and a more protracted vernal window. This change in the spring timetable has ecological, social and economic consequences - for agriculture, fisheries and tourism. As the ice melts earlier, the birds don't return, causing a delay, or lengthening in springtime ecological events.
  2. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Global warming is causing spring to come early and for longer durations. 2. Early spring and longer period of spring is not good for bird populations.

Which of the above assumptions is/are correct?

Correct Answer : A

Q.52. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 2 A global analysis of nitrogen use efficiency — a measure of the amount of nitrogen a plant takes in to grow versus what is left behind as pollution —says that using too much fertilizers will lead to increased pollution of waterways and the air. Currently, the global average for nitrogen use efficiency is approximately 0-4, meaning 40 per cent of the total nitrogen added to cropland goes into the harvested crop while 60 per cent is lost to the environment, says a study. More than half of the world's population is nourished by food grown with fertilizers containing synthetic nitrogen, which is needed to produce high crop yields. Plants take the nitrogen they need to grow, and the excess is left in the ground, water and air. This results in significant emissions of nitrous oxide, a potent greenhouse and ozone depleting gas, and other forms of nitrogen pollution, including eutrophication of lakes and rivers and contamination of river water.

Which of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message implied by the passage ?

Correct Answer : A

Q.53. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 3 Along with sustainable lifestyles, climate justice is regarded as a significant principle in environmental parlance. Both the principles have bearings on political and economic choices of the nation. So far, in our climate change summits or compacts, both the principles have eluded consensus among nations. Justice, in the judicial sense, is well defined. However, in the context of climate change, it has scientific as well as socio-political connotations. The crucial question in the next few years will be how resources, technologies and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change. Justice in climate is not confined to actions relating to mitigation, but includes the wider notion of support for adaptation to climate change and compensation for loss and damage.

One of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage ?

Correct Answer : A

Q.54. A principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded half-yearly with R % annual rate of interest. If the same principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded annually with S% annual rate of interest, then which one of the following is correct?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.55. How many natural number are there which give a remainder of 31 when 1186 is divided by these natural numbers?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.56. Let pp, qq and rr be 2-digit numbers where p < q < r. If pp + qq + rr = tt0, where tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero, consider the following statements:
  1. The number of possible values of p is 5.
  2. The number of possible values of q is 6.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Correct Answer : C

Q.57. What is the sum of all 4-digit numbers less than 2000 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, where none of the digits is repeated?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.58. What is the number of selections of 10 consecutive things out of 12 things in a circle taken in the clockwise direction ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.59. If today is Sunday, then which day is it exactly on 10^10 th day?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : B

Q.60. There are three traffic signals. Each signal changes colour from green to red and then from ted to green. The first signal takes 25 seconds, the second signal takes 39 seconds and the third signal takes 60 seconds to change the colour from green to red. The durations for green and red colours are same. At 2:00 p.m, they together turn green. At what time will they change to green next, simultaneously?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : B

Q.61. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 1 In India, white the unemployment rate is a frequently used measure of poor performance of the economy, under conditions of rising school and college enrolment, it paints an inaccurate picture. The reported unemployment rate is dominated by the experience of younger Indians who face higher employment challenges and exhibit greater willingness to wait for the right job than their older peers. The unemployment challenge is greater for people with secondary or higher education, and rising education levels inflate unemployment challenges.

Which one of the following statements most likely reflects as to what the author of the passage intends to say?

Correct Answer : B

Q.62. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 2 "Science by itself is not enough, there must be a force and discipline outside the sciences to coordinate them and point to a goal. It is not possible to run a course aright when the goal itself has not been rightly placed. What science needs is philosophy — the analysis of scientific method and the coordination of scientific purposes and results; without this, any science must be superficial. Government suffers, precisely like science, for lack of philosophy. Philosophy bears to science the same relationship which statesmanship bears to politics : movement guided by total knowledge and perspective, as against aimless and individual seeking. Just as the pursuit of knowledge becomes scholasticism when divorced from the actual needs of men and life, so the pursuit of politics becomes a destructive bedlam when divorced from science and philosophy."

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, logical and practical message conveyed by the passage?

Correct Answer : A

Q.63. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 3 The last end of the state is not to dominate men, nor to restrain them by fear; rather it is so to free each man from fear that he may live and act with full security and without injury to himself or his neighbour. The end of the state, I repeat, is not to make rational beings into brute beasts and machines. It is to enable their bodies and their minds to function safely. It is to lead men to live by, and to exercise, a free reason; that they may not waste their strength in hatred, anger and guile, nor act unfairly toward one another.

Based on the above passage, which one of the following terms best expresses the ultimate goal of the state ?

Correct Answer : D

Q.64. What is the remainder if 2^192 is divided by 6 ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : D

Q.65. Consider the sequence ABC _ _ ABC _ _ DABBCD _ ABCD that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : D

Q.66. AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding DEF to another 3-digit number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are distinct digits. If E = 0, F = 8, then what is A + B + C equal to?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.67. Consider the following statements in respect of five candidates P, Q, R, S and T. Two statements are true and one statement is false.
  1. True Statement : One of P and Q was selected for the job. False Statement : At least one of R and S was selected for the job. True Statement : At most two of R, S and T were selected for the job. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn ? 1. At least four were selected for the job. 2. S was selected for the job.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct Answer : D

Q.68. Let F, Q, R, S and P be five statements such that :
  1. I. If P is true, then both Q and S are true. II. If R and S are true, then T is false. Which of the following can be concluded ? 1. If T is true, then at least one of P and R must be false. 2. If Q is true, then P is true.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct Answer : A

Q.69. A cuboid of dimensions 7 cm x 5 cm x 3 cm is painted red, green and blue colour on each pair of opposite faces of dimensions 7 cm x 5 cm, 5 cm x 3 cm, 7 cm x 3 cm respectively. Then the cuboid is cut and separated into various cubes each of side length 1 cm. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
  1. There are exactly 15 small cubes with no paint on any face.
  2. There are exactly 6 small cubes with exactly two faces, one painted with blue and the other with green.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct Answer : A

Q.70. The letters of the word “INCOMPREHENSIBILITIES" are arranged alphabetically in reverse order. How many positions of the letter/letters will remain unchanged?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : C

Q.71. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 1 Sourcing food from non-agricultural lands (uncultivated systems such as forests, wetlands, pastures, etc) in addition to agricultural lands enables a systemic approach to food consumption. It allows rural and tribal communities to sustain themselves for the whole year and steer clear of natural disasters and season-induced shortfalls of agricultural food. Since the productivity of trees is often more resilient to adverse weatherconditions than annual crops, forest foods often provide a safety net during periods of food shortages caused by crop failure; forest foods also make important contributions during seasonal crop production gaps.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage ?

Correct Answer : D

Q.72. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 2 While awareness on use/misuse and abuse of antibiotics is common knowledge, as is the impact of dosing poultry with antibiotics, the environmental impact of antibiotics-manufacturing companies not treating their waste has scarcely been discussed at any length or seriousness thus far. Pollution from antibiotics factories is fuelling the rise of drug-resistant infections. The occurrence of drug-resistant bacteria surrounding the pharma manufacturing plants is well known.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and practical message conveyed by the passage?

Correct Answer : A

Q.73. Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
  1. Passage - 3 Benefits of good quality school education accrue only when students complete and leave school after having acquired the gateway skills. Like one learns to walk before running, similarly one picks up advanced skills only after picking the basic foundational skills. The advent of the knowledge economy poses new challenges, and one of the severe consequences of having an uneducated workforce will be our inability to keep pace with the global economy. Without a strong learning foundation at the primary level, there can be no improvement in higher education or skill development.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

Correct Answer : C

Q.74. 40 children are standing in a circle and one of them (say child-1) has a ring. The ring is passed clockwise. Child-1 passes on to child-2, child-2 passes on to child-4, child-4 passes on to child-7 and so on. After how many such changes (including child-1) will the ring be in the hands of child-1 again ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : B

Q.75. What is the middle term of the sequence Z, Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W, . . . , A ?

Select the correct answer

Correct Answer : A

Q.76. Question : Is p greater than q ? Statemetn-1 : p x q is greater than zero. Statement-2 : p2 is greater than q2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

Correct Answer : D

Q.77. Question : Is (p + q - r) greater than (p - q + r), where p, q and r are integers? Statement1 : (p - q) is positive. Statement2 : (p - r) is negative

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

Correct Answer : C

Q.78. In a party, 75 persons took tea, 60 persons took coffee and 15 persons took both tea and coffee. No one taking mild takes tea. Each person takes at least one drink.
  1. Question : How many persons attended the party? Statement-1 : 50 persons took milk. Statement-2 : Number of persons who attended the party is five times the number of persons who took mild only.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

Correct Answer : A

Q.79. Consider a 3-digit number.
  1. Question : What is the number ? Statement-1 : The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the digits. Statement-2 : The number is divisible by the sum of the digits of the number.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

Correct Answer : D

Q.80. For five children with ages a < b < c < d < e; any two successive ages differ by 2 years.
  1. Question : What is the age of the youngest child? Statement-1 : The age of the eldest is 3 times the youngest. Statement-2: The average age of the children is 8 years.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

Correct Answer : B

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a recruitment agency which recruits all the Central Services Employees and All India Services Posts. UPSC conducts Civil Services Exams every year and it releases the answer keys for all the examinations after the entire selection process. The UPSC answer key is available only on www.upsc.gov.in which is it’s official website. UPSC releases the answer keys for UPSC CSE IAS exam, CDS, NDA, CMS, IES, CAPF Assistant Commandant, CISF AC and Engineering Services (Preliminary).

UPSC Answer Key 2024

The UPSC conducts the Civil Services Examination (CSE) in three stages - Preliminary, Main Exam and Personality Test/Interview. The Civil Services (Preliminary) examination is an objective type test which comprises two papers, namely, the General Studies and Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT).

The Commission releases the official UPSC CSE 2024 answer keys for Civil Services Preliminary only after the completion of entire selection process. Hence, we have decided to provide the UPSC Answer Key 2024 for the Civil Services Preliminary exam. Candidates who have appeared for the UPSC Mains Examination can access the tentative UPSC CSE answer keys (Preliminary) 2024 to assess their performance.

UPSC CSE / IAS Prelims 2024 was successfully held on June 05. To help the aspirants in their preparation for UPSC Prelims 2024 Aspire IAS is providing the official answer key of the UPSC exam 2015 to 2020. The answer key of UPSC Prelims 2024 will be posted by Aspire IAS on October June 05 itself. The Aspirants who are preparing for the UPSC CSE 2023 exam can solve the UPSC CSE Previous Years’ Papers to analyze their preparation level. Only after solving UPSC CSE 2015 - 2020 Previous Years Papers and analysing your mistakes, will you be able to clear UPSC CSE 2024.

UPSC Official Answer Key: 2024, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016 & 2015

Year

Paper I

Paper II

UPSC Answer Key: CSE (Prelims) 2024

View/Download

Not Released Yet

UPSC Answer Key: CSE (Prelims) 2021

Not Released Yet

Not Released Yet

UPSC Answer Key: CSE (Prelims) 2020

View/Download

Not Released Yet

UPSC Answer Key: CSE (Prelims) 2019

View/Download

View/Download

UPSC Answer Key: CSE (Prelims) 2018

View/Download

View/Download

UPSC Answer Key: CSE (Prelims) 2017

View/Download

View/Download

UPSC Answer Key: CSE (Prelims) 2016

View/Download

View/Download

UPSC Answer Key: CSE (Prelims) 2015

View/Download

View/Download

The Commission releases the official IAS answer keys for Civil Services Prelims exam only after the completion of the entire selection process. Recently, the Commission has released the IAS Prelims Answer Key 2019. It has released the IAS Pre answer key 2019 for both General Studies Paper I and II.

UPSC Prelims Answer Key- Previous Year Cut Off

Candidates can take a look at the UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Cut Off and prepare accordingly keeping in mind the change through the year in the cut off. The given cut off are from a total of 200 marks for 2015-2019.

Category

2020

2019

2018

2017

2016

2015

General

92.51

98

98.00

105.34

116.00

107.34

SC

74.84

82

84.00

88.66

99.34

94

ST

68.71

77.34

83.34

88.66

96.00

91.34

OBC

89.12

95.34

96.66

102.66

110.66

106

PwD 1

70.06

53.34

73.34

85.34

75.34

90.66

PwD 2

63.94

44.66

53.34

61.34

72.66

76.66

PwD 3

40.82

61.34

40.00

40.00

40.00

40

PwD 5

42.86

61.34

45.34

-

-

-

EWS

77.55

90

-

-

-

-

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2024 Important dates

  • Release of answer key: To be announced

  • UPSC services mains exam: To be announced

  • Declaration of the result: To be announced

Exam pattern of UPSC Civil Service Preliminary Exam

Exam structure

Details

Exam Type

Offline mode/ OMR Markings

Medium of Exam

English and Hindi

Mode of Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Number of questions

GS 1 -100 Questions; GS 2 (CSAT) - 80 Questions

Duration of the Exam

2 hours for each paper

How To Calculate Marks Using UPSC Answer Keys?

The answer key is very helpful to know the correct answers and subsequently predict the scores obtained in the exam. Candidates should refer the UPSC answer key after appearing for an exam. In order to predict the scores, candidates should get familiar with the marking scheme. One can refer to the front page of the question paper to understand the marking scheme, which is different from one to another exam.

Civil Services (Preliminary) Marking Scheme

UPSC General Studies (Paper I): 2 marks will be awarded for every right answer. For the wrong answer, one-third of the marks given to that question will be deducted as penalty.

UPSC CSAT (Paper II): 2.5 marks will be awarded for every correct answer. For the wrong answer, one-third of the marks given to that question will be deducted as penalty.

Note: There will be no penalty for that question which is left blank.

How to download UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2024?

UPSC publishes the answer key for UPSC CSE 2024 on the website after the entire selection process i.e. The answer Key of UPSC CSE 2024 shall come in 2023. UPSC CSE Prelims 2024 Answer Keys are made available in the pdf format. Candidates can download the results of the UPSC Prelims 2024 answer key. The steps mentioned below to download the IAS answer key 2024.

Direct Download Link of UPSC website - Click Here

*Note: Link will be active soon.

Step 1: Click on the above given direct link to get the UPSC 2024 Official Answer Key

Step 2: There is a tab known as ‘examination’. Click on it.

Step 3: A drop-down list will appear. ‘Answer key’ option will appear.

Step 4: Click on the ‘answer key’ link.

Step 5: A fresh page will open having the answer key for each year and each examination, Search for the UPSC CSE prelims 2024 examination.

Step 6: Download your answer key according to your Set A, B, C, D.

Step 7: Check the Setwise UPSC CSE Prelims 2024 Answer key and assess your marks.

Mains Answer Writing 2023

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